OOD,
I have a question. I've read in secular history books (I've not read enough Orthodox history books to confirm it ) that at various times throughout history, Orthodox Churches had businesses, massive amounts of peasant workers (shall we call it feudalism? the historians do...), etc. So, if this indeed did happen, is what the MP is doing that much different than what, let's say, the Bishop of Ochrid was doing in the 11th century? I'm not saying that, if it happened before, that makes it ok or acceptable. I'm just trying to get some perspective on this.