I'm interested on what the Fathers of the Church have to say about Christ's quoting Psalms 22 on the cross. A friend of mine (and others I"ve spoken with in the past), argue that his use of "My God, my God, why has thou forsaken me?" as indicating that God's wrath was taken out on the son, resulting in a temporary breaking of fellowship with the Son. My big problem with that is it seems that, in order for that to happen, Jesus would have had to become either "not God" or there would have had to suddenly be two Gods.
I asked this over on Defenders of the Catholic Faith, and did get a good quote, but from a post-reformation teacher. I'm more interested in what the early Church had to say. Any help would be appreciated.
I should point out that one of the issues that came up was how could Jesus bear our sins unless he emptied himself - thus implying he became other than God for a brief period.