Priest Siluan wrote:Father Deacon Joseph:
What do you think about "Adoptionism" in the "Mozarabic", or rather "Visigothic" Rite and its? According what little I know the Visigothic Rite would have been "purified" from this heresy by Rome.
This is incorrect. The rite was in fact investigated in a conciliar fashion in the West, and the charge of adoptionism was dropped. The original charge was due to the fact that adoptionists had altered the Hispanic rite texts.
I say Visigothic, because for me is better than "Hispanic", because in other regions of the Iberian Peninsula and the Balearic islands also has been used the "Byzantine Rite".
This owuld be incorrect, since (a) it was the rite used throughout Hispania (as the land was known before its division into Spain and Portugal), and we would apply the land a rite is in, not an ethnic appellation (b) it was historically used, even fused with the word "Mozarabic" (c) it was not originally compiled or imported by the Visigoths at all (who were using an Arian rite), but native clergy of the region (Gallo-Roman; both Sts Isidore and Leander were Gallo-Roman) and later, with the martyrdom of St Hermengildo, eventually became the state faith (d) and to reiterate the jurisdiction and rite of Spain was consistent until the 9-10th century, when Franks began installing Roman rite monasteries there.
I didn't make up the term "Hispanic Rite". If you like using "Visigothic" for some reason though to my knowledge that would be somewhat inaccurate. "Toledan", if you find it personally offensive to call it "Hispanic", is better.
I know of no area that natively used the Byzantine Rite in Spain that was not due to a foreign migration, but I'd love to hear such an explanation.