I was reading the Canons of the Councils of the Church and in the First Council of Nicea Third Canon it states the following:
Canon III.
The great Synod has stringently forbidden any bishop, presbyter, deacon, or any one of the clergy whatever, to have a subintroducta dwelling with him, except only a mother, or sister, or aunt, or such persons only as are beyond all suspicion.
The Latins use this to support their claim of Apostolic Priestly Celibacy. How is one ot refute this idea in accord with the Teachings of the Orthodox Church?
I was caugt off guard by the bolded phrase above and figurred that that was the key part that the Latins twist. When I looked for a foonote for the term I found this:
A subintroducta was a woman who lived in the same house as a celibate clergyman.
My question is this. Why would this Canon not be more clear and state that priestly and diaconate clergy are allowed ot be married? Are there any other Canons or teachings one can use to show the Apostolic Teaching allows for a married priesthood? (Outside of the fact that the Old Testament priesthood was a married priesthood as well?)[/quote][/b]