Question:
Why is it that most of the Liturgy is performed behind the Iconostasis? What do you say and how do you explain this to a Protestant who says that since the veil of the Temple (in Scriptures) was rent in two and that this means that Christ is now open and available to all...
How do you explain the Mysteries of the Church?
How do you explain this to someone who says that "if it is not in the Bible then it is not needed for salvation"?
Books, Writings of the Fathers... anything?
First of all, I would ignore Protestant interpretations of scripture.
I can, however, offer a traditional Orthodox explanation that was taught to me.
The reason for the closed doors to the altar is to symbolize that sin has cut us away from Holiness.
In another sense, it is to remind us that there are mysteries in this world which we do not understand and can not witness.
Protestants, I would imagine, would quarrel with the first interpretation, as they seem to believe that once you claim Jesus as your saviour, you are automatically saved, regardless of sin. In fact, I have had discussions with Protestants who claim that sin can't keep you from being saved because of some proof text that says everyone who accepts Jesus as saviour is automatically savedand that not believing that promise of scripture (salvation) is blasphemous.
I am not the best authority on Protestantism, but I am pretty sure that in Orthodoxy, the closed gates are a symbolic representation of man's distance from God caused by sin, and that the opening of the Royal Gates when the chalice is brought out represents the coming of Christ to overcome that sin.
This is what I was taught by Abp Anthony of San Francisco of blessed memory.
Juvenaly wrote:Question:
How do you explain this to someone who says that "if it is not in the Bible then it is not needed for salvation"?
Ask them where in the Bible that it is specifically stated that God is a Trinity - Three Persons in One God. Matthew 28:19 won't cut it - all it does is name the Three Persons of the Blessed Trinity. It doesn't state that they are one God, one in essence and undivided. Yet undoubtedly they will believe this (unless they are Oneness Pentecostals), but it's not explicitly stated in Scripture. It was defined at the Council of Nicaea in 325 A.D.
Ask them where Scripture names the authors of the Four Gospels. They won't be able to cite Scriptural evidence that Matthew wrote the Gospel of Matthew, etc.
Point out Luke 1:48 to them: "[Mary said] For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed" Ask them if their "church" encourages them to honour the Mother of God. I'm sure they will say "no". That is not Scriptural.
